both are aquired through human labour.
yes but only one is produced via human labor...
in the system that I advocate there would be no purchase price price to land (your "aquiring") only the requirement to enforce the exclusive use via title that the economic rent (unimproved land value) by shared to uphold the right of self-ownership of your neighbors.
slaves were aquired by labor too...does that make it justified?
I'm still not obliged to make you continue to exist at my expense.
I agree...anything
PRODUCED via human labor that would allow another
TO CONINUE TO exist is a violation of the absolute right of self-ownership of those being
FORCED to contribute the sustenance to another.
governments as legitimate agency are constituted to protect individuals from this type of positive liberty...
I'm not allowed to defend myself to prevent me from being stolen from
you are allowed to defend yourself from having labor-based property stolen from you that is why governance as legitimate agency is constituted to insure that those being excluded from land by privilege are not
FORCED to labor inorder to pay those who are excluding which VIOLATES the absolute right to self-ownership of the excluded to their wages (return on labor).
in the system I advocate the rights of self-ownership are NOT violated because:
1. they do not produce the land itself with their labor - correct?
2. they do not create the economic rent with their labor by definition as it is called
UNIMPROVED land value - correct?
and as I said there would be no purchase price to aquire land - just the sahring of economic rent directly and equally between neighbors within a community.
and I'll ask again...where
EXACTLY is the landowner's right of self-ownership being denied in this scenario that I describe??
Read communist theory,you're advocating the same premises,everyone has 'equal right' to collectivesed property
I have thank you....very, very carefully!
collective property is joint ownership that inevitably becomes unequal because if any owner wants to acces/use they have to get permission form
EVERY OTHER joint owner (consensus)
PRIOR to use or their delegated authority (state).
common ownership is individual equal ownership where any individual owner can take action to access/use so longas their use does not
INFRINGE on any other individual's equal right to the same.
these are very, very different concepts which takes very, very careful study and analysis...
taking my money against my chosing is violating my self ownership, economic disadvantage has nothing to do with it.
the "money" you are referring to being "taken" is called economic rent.
economic rent is a legal and monetary obligation forced upon those being excluded by privilege which COMPELS them to labor for what defines their very existence which they have no choice in the matter (not something that allows them to continue to exist that is a good or service produced by the labor of another) and violates their absolute right of self-ownership.
therefore it is a
JUSTIFIED use of
DEFENSIVE force for the
OFFENSIVE force that is exclusive use of land backed by force and granted via a title.
Stealing my money against my freewill so that you can have your right gifted to you isn't defensive.
the right of self-ownership isn't "gifted" to the excluded as you are making an assumption that is not supported by fact - the economic rent does not belong to the landowner as the landowner contributed no labor towards it's creation.
All property is albour based. I worked, earned money and bought the propert with said money as a product of my labour. It is now an asset of mine, I'm not required to do anything with it.
no...there is:
a. labor-based property via human exertion
b. law-based property via government granted privilege
you could not have "bought the property" in my scenario because
there is no purchase price to land just a requirement to uphold exclusive use via a title backed by force that the unimproved land value (econoic rent) be shared between neighbors in a community.
you can't disambiguate one theory and perport it as fact and entirely dismiss the other.
what other "theory" of rights am I dismissing?
a theory of rights based on choice?
please cite a reference to this theory for all to see an analyze...