I know that most of you, like myself, are advocates for full property rights asserting that an individual should be able to do whatever he wants on his own property. As such one must therefore be against zoning regulations that may perhaps disallow a Property owner (we'll call him A) from keeping livestock in a residential area. However given that livestock tend to be rather offensive to the olfactory senses and that some types of animals can become annoyingly vociferous at times this can adversely affect the owner of an adjacent property (we'll call him B) in the event that B is trying to sell his own property. My question is if Property Owner B can prove that Property Owner A's livestock has adversely affected the resale value of B's property, does B have a right to some form of compensation? This question holds true for any type of offensive practice that A may be engaging in: uncut grass, garbage on the front lawn, peculiar smells, etc.
Justify your votes below.