Do you qualify "revenge" as any act of force not performed in self-defense during the commission of the initiated force?
I think I sense what the question is hitting at, but I think there might be two unspoken defintions: revenge and self-defense.
I do not consider it revenge to use force after the fact if that force is needed to make the person being harmed whole. A private protection agency using tear gas in the home of an armed robber in the attempt to reclaim stolen goods would not be revenge in my eyes. However, breaking the guys kneecaps the next weekend because he's an asshat and you're angry WOULD be revenge.
IMO You only have the right to take someone's life if they threatened to take the life of yours or your family's.
My basis for the ownership of property is the act of eating (eating, which is a human requirement deprives other people of the ability to eat that thing. This establishes that ownership it natural, needed and ethical. My viewpoint also extends to more "complex" forms of property, but that's the basis of it). When I say "life, liberty and property" I'm not speaking of three unique things, but three aspects of the same thing. With that understanding, I believe in absolute ownership of property and support that through homesteading all non-data things may be owned. I do, very much, consider tresspass of any sort to be an assault on life. I wouldn't go blasting away people for stepping foot on my property, but in the very barest sense, I do believe that someone doing that would be disgusting BUT acting ethically according to the non-aggression principal.